ALL INDIA 2004 JANUARY DENTAL PG SECTION (MDS) QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS
ALL
INDIA 2004 JANUARY DENTAL PG SECTION (MDS)
1. In a disease free tempromandibular
joint, posterior end of the articular disc remains at:
1. 0 O' clock position.
2.
10 O' clock position.
3.
12- 12 O' clock position.
4. 2
O' clock position.
2. Which of the following teeth has maximum
sensory receptors?
1. Maxillary permanent 1st molar.
2.
Mandibular permanent 1st molar.
3.
Mandibular permanent canine.
4.
Maxillary permanent canine.
3. In a healthy gingival, the distance
between gingival margin and free gingival groove is:
1. 0.1-0.5 mm.
2.
0.5-1 mm.
3.
0.5-1.5 mm.
4. 1
mm-2 mm.
4. Which of the following structures in not
present on the internal surface of mandible?
1. Genial tubercle.
2.
Mylohyoid ridge.
3.
Lingula.
4.
Mental foramen.
Ans: 4
5. Among all of the following formens in
the base of skull which is the most posteriorty present:
1. Foramen spinosum.
2.
Foramen rotundum.
3.
Foramen Lacerum.
4. Foramen
Ovale.
Ans: 1
6. Enamel etched by a tooth conditioner but
not covered with a fissure sealant will:
1. Remineralize within a month.
2.
Remineralize within 3 months.
3.
Absorb stain and discolor the tooth.
4.
Leave the tooth more susceptible to caries attack.
7. The strength of dental investment for
gold alloy is dependent on the amount of:
1. Silica
2.
Carbon
3.
Copper
4.
Gypsum
Ans: 4
8. In Erythema migrans, which papilla of
tongua are absent:
1. Fungiform.
2.
Foliate.
3.
Filliform.
4.
Circumvallate.
Ans:
3
9. Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber
is a feature of:
1. Coronal dentin dysplasia.
2.
Regional odontodysplasia.
3.
Dentigenesis imperfecta.
4.
Amelogenesis imperfecta.
Ans:
1
10. On clinical examination a 60 years old
feamale had a turnor in the right Buccalmucosa. The size of the tumor was about
1 cm in diameter.There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also has
no distant metastasis. The TNM stag of the tumor is:
1. T1 No
Mo.
2.
T1 N1 Mo.
3.
T1 N2 Mo.
4.
T2 No Mo.
Ans: 4
11. Which of the following is not a feature
of torus mandibularies?
1. Common in Mongoloids.
2.
Present on the lingual surface of mandible below the Mylohyoid line.
3.
Usually Bilateral.
4.
May of may not associatd with torus palatinus.
Ans:
2
12. The time gap between appearance of
Koplik's spot and cutaneous rash in measles is:
1. 24 Hrs.
2.
3-4 days.
3. 2
weeks.
4.
10 Days.
Ans:
2
13. The drug that causes intrinsic staining
of teeth due to calcium
chelation is:
1. Alizarin
2.
Ampicillin.
3.
Tetracycline.
4.
Erythromycin.
Ans:
3
14. Which of the following medications
shortens the recovery period of
pricary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
1. Acyclovir.
2.
Ziduvidine.
3.
Kenalog in orabase.
4.
All of the above.
Ans:
1
15. The occurrence of dental caries in a
population at a given point of time may be termed as:
1. Incidence.
2.
Point Prevalence.
3.
Period Prevalence.
4.
None of the above.
Ans:
1
16.
The CPITN probe has a ball end of which diameter & marking at what level:
1.
0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
2.
1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm.
3.
0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm
4.
1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
Ans:
3
17. The WHo index for fluorisis is based
on:
1. Dean's index
2.
Mckay's index
3.
Community Fluorosis index
4.
Public Health fluorosis index
18. While planning for a clinical trial for
finding out the effect of a particular mouthwash on human subjects, which kind
of study design will be able to give best results:
1. Randomized controlled trial with double
blind planning.
2.
Clinical trial with single blind plan and crossover
3.
Randomized controlled trial with no blinding and cross-over.
4.
Randomized controlled trial with double blind plan and cross-over.
19. DMFT index is a:
1. Simple reversible index.
2.
Cumulative irreversible index
3.
Cumulative reversible index
4.
Simple irreversible index
Ans:
2
20. Recommended average daily intake of
fluoride from all sources
combined for adults and children is:
1. 2.o to 2.2 mg & 1.2 mg.
2.
1.2 to 2.0 mg & 1.2 mg.
3.
2.2 to 2.4 mg & 1.5 mg.
4.
2.6 to 2.8 mg & 1.4 mg.
21. Mineral trioxide aggregate used in
apexification:
1. Forms an integral part of the root canal
filling
2.
Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses
3.
Has not yielded good results
4.
Is availabel in a paste from
22. Which of the following is the most
recommended endodontic obturating material for deciduous teeth?
1. Kri paste.
2.
ZOE
3.
Ca(OH)2 paste
4.
Maisto's paste
Ans: 2
23. Which of the following is the best
indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
1. Neurosurgery.
2.
Day care surgery.
3.
Patients with coronary artery disease.
4.
In neonates.
And: 2
24. Which of the following volatile
anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in
children?
1. Enflurane.
2.
Isoflurane.
3.
Sevoflurane.
4.
Desflurane.
Ans:
3
25. When a patient develops
supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of
the following treatments may be instituted except:
1. Caroted sinus massage
2.
Adenosine 3-12 mg IV
3.
Direct current cardioversion
4.
Verapamil 5 mg IV
Ans:
4
26. A 25 year old male with roadside
accident underwent debridement and reducion of fractured both bones right
forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient
complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and the
hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfuncion could be all of the
following except:
1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated
nerves
2. A
tight cast or dressing
3.
Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
4.
Tourniquet pressure
27. The first costochondral joint is a:
1. Fibrous joint
2.
Synovial joint
3.
Syndesmosis
4.
Syncendrosis
28. Which of the following is the feature
of Y chromosome?
1. Acrocentric
2.
Telocentric
3.
Submetacentric
4.
Metacentric
29. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial
mRNA is near:
1. AUG codon
2.
UAA codon
3.
UAG codon
4.
UGA codon
Ans: 1
30. Which of the following is a
membranebound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP?
1. Tyrosine kinase
2.
Polymerase
3.
ATP synthase
4.
Adenlylate cyclase.
Ans: 4
31. A small Ca2+ binding protein that
modifies the activity of many enzymes and other protiens in response to changes
of Ca2+ concentration,is known as:
1. Cycline
2.
Calmodulin
3.
Collagen
4.
Kinesin
32. An enzyme that makes a double stranded
DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:
1. DNA polymerase.
2.
RNA polymerase
3.
Reverse transcriptase.
4.
Phosphokinase.
Ans: 3
33. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is
not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:
1. Intron
2.
Exon
3.
Plasmid
4.
TATA box
Ans:
1
34. The articular cartilage is
characterized by all of the following features except:
1. It is devoid of perichondrium
2.
It has a rich nerve supply
3.
It is avascular
4.
It lacks the capacity to regenerate
35. All of the following are catagorised as
secondary lymphoid organs except:
1. Lymph nodes
2.
Spleen
3.
Thymus
4.
Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
Ans: 3
36. An inhaled foreign body is likely to
lodge in the right lung due to
all of the following features except:
1. Right lung is shorter and wider than
left lung.
2. Right principal bronchus is more
vertical than the left bronchus.
3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign
body to the right lung.
4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in
continuation with the principal
bronchus.
37. A person on a fat free carbohydrate
rich diet continues to grow
obese. Which of the following lipoproteins
is likely to be elevated in his
blood?
1. Chylomicrons
2. VLDL
3. LDL
4. HDL
Ans: 3
38. The transmembrane of a protein is
likely ot have:
1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
3. A disulphide loop
4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic
amino acids.
39. Radio isotopes are used in the
following techniques except:
1. Mass spectroscopy
2. RIA
3. ELISA
4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.
40. Which of the following substances acts
to increase the release of
Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum?
1.Inositol triphosphate
2. Parathyroid hormone
3. 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol.
4. Diacyl glycerol
41. Which of the following elements is
known to influence the body's
ability to handle oxidative stress?
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Potassium
4. Selenium
42. Which of the following groups of
proteins assist in the folding of
other protenis?
1. Proteases
2. Proteosomes
3. Templates
4. Chaperones
Ans: 4
43. A highly ionized drug:
1. Is excereted mainly by the kidneys
2. Crosses the placental barrir easily
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine
4. Is highly protein bound
44. All of the following are used a proxy
measures for incubation
period except:
1. Latent period
2. Period of communicability
3. Serial interval
4. Generation time
45. The current recommendation for breast
feeding is that:
1. Exclusive breast-feeding should be
continued till 6 months of age
followed by supplementation with additional
foods.
2. Exclusive breast-feeding shoudl be
continued till 4 months of age
followed by supplementation with additional
foods.
3. Colostrum is the most suibable food for
a new born baby but it is
best avoided in first 2 days.
4. The baby should be allowed to reast feed
till one year of age.
46. The following statements about breast
milk are true except:
1. The maximum milk output is seen at 12
months.
2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in
breast milks is 70%
3. Calcium absorption of human milk is
better than that of cow's milk.
4. It provides about 65 K cals per 100 ml.
47. Multi purpose worker scheme in India
was introduced following the
recommendation of:
1. Srivastava Committee
2. Bhore Committee
3. Kartar Singh Committee
4. Mudaliar Committee
48. The usefulness of a 'screening test' in
a community depends on its:
1. Sensitivity
2. Specificity
3. Reliability
4. Predictive value
Ans: 1
49. If the grading of malocclusion is
classified as "mild", "moderate"
and "severe" the scale of
measurement used is:
1. Interval
2. Nominal
3. Ordinal
4. Ratio
Ans: 3
50. If prevalence of dental carries is 10%
the probability that three
people selected at random from the
population will have diabetes is:
1. 0.01
2. 0.03
3. 0.001
4. 0.003
51. A study began in 1970 with a group of
5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their "Gutka" consumption.
The occurrence of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is
an example of:
1. Cross-sectional study
2. Retrospective cohort study
3. Concurrent cohort study
4. Case-control study
52. Hair and nails are usually preserved in
poisoning from:
1. Arsenic
2.
Phosphorous
3.
Barbiturates
4.
Carbon monoxide
Ans:
1
53. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism
hollowing administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine
deficiency goiter is known as:
1.
Jod-Basedow effect
2.
Wolff-Chaikoff effect
3.
Thyrotoxicosis factitia
4.
de Quervain's thyroiditis
54. A 39 year-old female presents with
fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram positive small to medium
coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount
from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2.
Corynebacterium sp.
3.
Enterococcus sp.
4.
Erysipelothirx rhusiopathiae.
55.In all the following bacterial
diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism excepts.
1. Vibrio cholerae.
2.
Shigella sp.
3.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
4.
Stphylococcus aureus.
56. All of the following clinical features
are associated wih Enteroviruses except.
1. Myocarditis.
2. Pleurodynia.
3.
herpangina.
4.
Hemorrhagic fever.
57. A post-operative patient developed
septicemia and was emperical started on combination chemotherapy by a new
resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days
of antidiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that
the resident doctor had started the combination of antiviotics which was
mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely
combination that was given?
1. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
2.
Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
3.
Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
4.
Ciprofloxaccin and Piperacillin.
58. In some old feactures, cartilaginous
tissue forms over the fractured bone enes with a catity in between containing
clear fluid. This condition is called as :
1. Delayed union.
2.
Slow union.
3.
Nun union.
4-
Pseudarthrosis.
59. A police reruit,somoker and 6 months
into training started complaining of pain at posterior medialaspect of both
legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical
activity. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Burger's disease.
2.
Gout.
3.
Lumbar canal stenosis.
4.
Stress fracture.
60. In which of the following locations
therer is collecrion of pus in the quinsy?
1. Peritonsillar space.
2.
Parapharyngeal space.
3.
Retropharyngeal space.
4.
Within the tonsil.
Ans: 1
61. Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral
Cavity arise from:
1. Mucous glands.
2.
Sebaceous glands.
3.
Taste buds.
4.
Minor salivary glands.
Ans:
2
62. Which of the following statements best
represents Bell's paralysis?
1. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial
nerve paralysis.
2.
Combined paralysis of the facial, Trigeminal, and abducens nerves.
3.
Idopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve.
4.
Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye.
Ans:
3
63. Retardation of skeletal maturity can be
caused by all except:
1. Chronic renal failure.
2.
Hypothyroidism.
3.
Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
4.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Ans:
1
64. Bone marrow transplantation can be used
as a treatment for all
except:
1. Osteopetrosis.
2.
Adrenoleukodystrophy.
3.
Hurler's syndrome.
4.
Hemochromatosis.
Ans: 3
65. HBAIc level in blood explains:
1. Acute rise of sugar.
2.
Long term status of blood sugar.
3.
Hepatorenal syndrome.
4.
Chronic pancreatitis.
66. To which of the following family of
chemical mediators of
inflammation. the Lipoxins belong?
1. Kinin system.
2.
Cytokines.
3.
Chemokines.
4.
Arachidonic acid metabolities.
67- The most abundant glycoprotein present
in basement membrane is:
1. Laminin.
2.
Fibronectin.
3.
Collagen type 4.
4.
Heparan sulphate.
Ans:
1
68. Which of the following is a
procoagulation protein?
1. Thrombomodulin.
2.
Protein C.
3.
Protein S.
4.
Thrombin.
69. Which of the following is an
antiapoptotic gene?
1. C-myc.
2.
P53.
3.
bcl-2
4.
bax.
Ans:
3
70. The commonest site of oral cancer among
Indian population is:
1.
Tongue.
2.
Floor of mouth.
3.
Alveobuccal complex.
4.
Lip.
Ans:
4
71. Persistent vomiting most likely causes:
1. Hyperkalaemia.
2.
Acidic urine excetion.
3.
Hypochloraemia.
4.
Hyperventilation.
72. Ram Kumar, a 70 year old male who has
been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a six months history
of a large, fungating,\ soft papaillary lesions in the oral cavity.The lision
has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies
taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with
hyperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the subjacent tissues. the most
likely diagnosis is:
1. Squamous cell papilloma.
2.
Spuamous cell carcinoma.
3.
Verrucous carcinoma.
4.
Malignant mixed tumour.
Ans.: 1
73. All of the following anticancer agents
cause bone marow depression
except:
1. Chlorambucil
2. Caunorubicin.
3. Doxorubicin.
4. Flutamide.
74. Clinically significant drug interaction
occures between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except:
1.
Isoniazid.
2.
Cyclosporine.
3.
Levodopa.
4.
Hydralazine.
75. In which of the following phases of
clinical trial of drugs ethical clearance is not required?
1. PhaseI.
2.
PhaseII.
3.
PhaseIII.
4.
PhaseIV.
76. Which of the following is not a
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
1. Zaicitabine.
2.
Lamivudine.
3.
Nevirapine.
4.
Didanosine.
77. Which of the following antimicrobials
has antipseudomonal action:
1. Cefpodoxime proxetil.
2.
Ceforanide.
3.
Cefotan.
4.
Cefoperazone.
Ans:
4
78. Which of the following statements is
not true regarding sulfonamides:
1. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from
gastro intestinal tract.
2.
Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration.
3.
Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus.
4.
Sulfonamides are of valus in treatment of infecrions due to Nocardia spcies.
79. Epoxy resin is not compatible with:
1. Polysulfide.
2.
Polyether.
3.
Addition silicone.
4.
Condensation silicone.
80. Which of the following fluoroquinolones
does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of
<50 mg/min.?
1. Ciprofloxacin.
2.
Trovafloxacin.
3.
Lomefloxacin.
4.
Sparfloxacin.
81. Which of the following actions is
ascribed to delta type of opioid
receptors?
1. Supraspinal analgesis.
2.
Respiratory depression.
3.
Euphoria.
4.
Reduced intestinal motility.
82. Which cement base has the highest
elastic modulous:
1. Zinc phosphate.
2.
Polymer-reinforced ZOE.
3.
Zinc Polycarboxyate.
4.
Glass-ionomer cement.
83. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in
the CNS is:
1. Glycine.
2.
Acetylcholine.
3.
Aspartate.
4.
Glutamate.
Ans: 2
84. The blood in the vessels normally does
not clot because:
1. Vitamin Kantagonists are present in
plasma.
2.
Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen.
3.
Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions.
4.
Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx.
Ans: 4
85. The force of muscle contraction can be
increased by all of the following except:
1. Increasing the frequency of activation
of motor units.
2.
Increasing the number of motor units acrivated.
3.
Increasing the amplitude fo acrion potentials in the motor neurons.
4.
Recruiting larger motor units.
Ans: 3
86. A 37 year old multipara construction
labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most
likely indicative of:
1. Iron deficiency.
2.
Folic deficiency.
3.
Malutrition.
4.
Combined iron and folic acid deficiency.
87. Maximum permissible steeing expansionof
high strength stone is:
1. 0.1%
2.
0.05%
3.
0.3%
4.
0.2%
88. The Non=REM (NREM) sleep is commonly
associated with:
1. Frequent dreaming.
2.
Frequent penile erections.
3.
Increased blood pressure.
4.
Night terrors.
89. Coefficient of thermal expansion
curreltly available porcelain is:
1. 6x10-6/0C.
2.
8x10-6/0C.
3.
10x10-6/0C.
4.
14x10-6/0C.
90. Which of the following brain tumors
does not spread via CSF?
1. Germ cell tumours.
2.
Medulloblastoma.
3.
CNS Lymphoma.
4.
Craniopharyngoma.
91. Which of the following is the most
penetration beam?
1. Blectron beam.
2. 8
MV photons.
3.
18 MV photons.
4.
Proton beam.
92. Which of the following does not bind to
GABA receptor chloride channels?
1. Ethanol.
2.
Alphaxolone.
3.
Zolpidem.
4.
Buspirone.
93. Jai Pratap, a 20-year-old male
presented with chronic constipation. headache and palpitations. On examination
he had marfanoid habitus neuromas of tongue, medullated corneal nerve fibers
and a nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is
a case of:
1. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
2.
Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
3.
Men IIa.
4.
Men IIb.
94. The most common condition of inherited
blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is:
1. Retinopathy of prematurity.
2.Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy.
3.
Retinitis pigmentosa.
4.
Retinal detachment.
95. The movement at the following joing
permits a person to look towards right or left:
1. Atlanto-occipital joint.
2.
Atlanto-axiat joint.
3.
C2-C4 joint.
4.
C3-C4 joint.
Ans.2
96. Which one of the following
preservatives is used while packing catgut suture?
1. Isopropyl alcohol.
2.
Colloidal iodine.
3.
Glutaraldehyde.
4.
Hydrogenperoxide.
Ans. 1
97 Which of the following is not an
important cause of hyponatraemia?
1. Gastric fistula.
2.
Excessive vomitting.
3.
Excessive Sweating.
4.
Prolonged Ryle's tube aspiration.
98. Which of the following is the earliest
manifesttion of Cushing's syndrome?
1. Loss of Diurnal variation.
2.
Increased ACTH.
3.
Increased plasma Contisol.
4.
Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol.
99. Thoracic extensionof cervical goiter is
usually approached through.
1. Neck.
2.
Chest.
3.
Combined cervico-thoracic route.
4.
Thoracoscopic.
100. The most common malignant tumor of
adult males in India is:
1. Oropharyngeal carcinoma.
2.
Gastric carcinoma.
3.
Colo-rectal carcinoma.
4.
Lung cancer.
Ans. 1
101. The complete denture construction
labio-dental sound F&V are used
to determine the:
1. Vertical placement of upper anterior
teeth
2.
Labio-lingual position of anterior teeth
3. Anterio
posterior position of anterior teeth
4.
Space between tongue and anterior part of hard palate
102. If a edentulous patient has torus
palatinus, what is the most preferred treatment while constructing a denture:
1. Relief in denture before insertion
2.
Relief at the impression stage
3.
Relief on master cast before packing
4.
Scraping of torus on master cast
103. In maxillary denture thickness of
flange in distobuccal area is determined by:
1. The bucinator and masseter muscle
2.
The ramus, buccinator and masseter muscle
3.
Coronoid process, buccinator and masseter muscle
4.
The ramus, coronoid process and masseter muscle
104. Material of choice for final
impression in a patient with submucous fibrosis is:
1. Zinc-oxide eugenol impression paste
2.
Light body silicon
3.
Regular body silicon
4.
Irreversible hydrocolloide
105. Palatal cusp of upper posteriro teeth
in complete denture patients should fall on:
1. Crest of mandibular ridge
2.
Lingual to crest of mandibular ridge
3.
Buccal to crest of mandibular ridge
4.
Buccal vestibule
Ans: 1
106. If a complete denture patient has
genial tubercle at the level of the crest of mandibular ridge then denture
base:
1. Can cover them
2.
Should not cover them
3.
Should cover them but relief is not necessary
4.
Should cover them and relief is must
107. Posterior palatal seal is recorded
when the head is bent at:
1. 30
2.
150
3.
60
4.
45
108. A complete denture patient complains
that he has pain in his throat during swallowing. This indicates:
1. Over extended PPS
2.
Over extended ingual flange
3.
Over extended lingual flange in retromyelohyoid region
4.
His tonsils are inflamed
109. The sprue in wax pattern should be
placed:
1. At right angle
2.
At acute angle
3.
At obtuse angle
4.
It depend upon type of wax pattern
110. Fovea palatine are situated in:
1. Hard palate
2.
Soft palate
3.
At the junction of hard and soft palate
4.
Their position is not fixed
Ans: 2
111. Extension of distolingual flange in
retromylohyoid area is
determined by:
1. Superior constructor and Mylohyoid
muscle
2.
Tongue movement with Mylohyoid muscle
3.
Superior constructor, medical pterygoid and tongue
4.
Superior constructor muscle and tongue musculature
112. The gagging reflex indicates:
1. Making and breaking content of the
posterior palatal seal
2.
Under extended upper denture
3.
Too deep posterior palatal seal
4.
Under extended disto lingual flange of lower denture
113. How long prior to taking an impression
should the retracrion cord be left in place.
1. 1 min.
2. 2
min.
3. 5
min.
4. 8
min.
114. coefficient of thermal expansion of
metalceramic alloy is:
1. Same as porcelain.
2.
More than porcelain.
3.
Less than procelain.
4.
More than or equal to porcelain but not less the procelain.
115. Titanium casting is done:
1. Under vacuum in argon atmosphere.
2.
Under air pressure, in nitrogen
atmosphere.
3.
In specially fabricated aluminum vanadium crucibles.
4.
Using CAD-CAM technique.
116. The following is the list of
elastomeric impression material which is the most biocompatible?
1. Polysulfide.
2.
Ployether.
3.
Addition silicone.
4.
Condenstion silicone.
Ans: 3
117. Monophase elastomeric impression
materials are based on:
1. Putty.
2.
Heavy body.
3.
Regular body.
4.
Light body.
118. Passivating alloys are:
1. Cr, Al, Ti.
2.
Cr. Mo, Ti.
3.
Cr, Fe, Mo.
4.
Cr, Gold, Ti.
Ans: 4
119 Crucible indicated for casting base
metal alloys is:
1. Carbon crucible.
2.
Clay crucible.
3.
Quartz crucible.
4.
High melting plastic crucible.
Ans: 1
120. Which of the following wax coating is
pesent on dental floss?
1. Besswax.
2.
Spermaceti Wax.
3.
Japan Wax.
4.
Carnauba Wax.
121. Which of the following materials acts
as an anti expansion agent in impression plaster?
1. NaCl.
2.
Potassium sulfate.
3.
Calcium sulfate.
4.
Silica quartz.
122. Which of the following is not a mouth
temperature waxes:
1. Adaptol.
2.
Korrecta type I.
3.
HL physsiologic paste.
4.
IOWA wax.
123. The mode of curing in microwave cured
dentures is by:
1. Heat conduction.
2.
Energ conversion.
3.
Electrical resistance.
4.
Magnetic field creation.
124. All are conscqucnces of cdentulism
except:
1. Prognathic appearance.
2.
Thinning of lips.
3.
Decreased length of lip.
4.
Increase in columella-philtrum angle.
125. Minimum criteria for success of an
implant is:
1. Success rate of 95% at end of 5 year
observation period and 85% at end of 10 year.
2.
Success rate pf 90% at emd pf 5 year and 80% at end of 10 year.
3.
Success rate of 85% at end of 5 year and 80% at end of 10 year.
4.
Success rate of 90% at end of 5 year and 87% at end of 10 year.
126. RPI stands for:
1. Occlusal rest, proximal plate, I bar.
2.
Cingulum rest, proximal plate,I bar.
3.
Rest,proximal guide plane, I bar.
4.
Rest, proximal plate, indirect retainer.
Ans: 1
127. Into how many segments the infant's
gumpad is divided:
1. Two in each quadrant.
2.
Three in each quadrant.
3.
Two in each jaw.
4.
Five in each quadrant.
128. Which statement best describes tooth
development during eruption:
1. The crown pierces the alveolar crest
when 2/3 root is complete.
2.
The crown reaches the occlusal plane when 2/3 root is complete.
3.
The crown pierces the alveolar crest when 3/4 of root is complete.
4.
The crown does not emerge in the oral cavity until root formation is complete.
129. The presence of higher amounts of
proline-rich proteing (PRP) can have what kind of effect on caries causation?
1. Caries promoting since they help in
bacterial adherence.
2.
Make tooth surface resistant to caries since it enhance fluoride action.
3.
It has role during tooth maineralization oly therefore no effect on caries.
4.
Aid in super saturation of saliva therefore make tooth resistant to caries.
130. Snyder test:
1. Is a method to detect acid formationis
saliva.
2.
Is a method to find out pH of crevicular fluid.
3.
Is a method to identify caries causing microorganisms.
4.
Is a method to detect fungal growth on skin.
Ans: 3
131. Fiber-optic trans-illumination (FOTI)
method of caries diagnosis is based on the priniciple of:
1. When Laser bear falls on carious enamel,
it gives a bluish hue.
2. A
fluorescent dye is takenup by carious dentine which can be viewed easily.
3.
There is a different index of light tranmission for decayed or sound enamel.
4.
The conductance of normal and decayed tooth tissue is different.
132. Among the common food items, fluoride
is found in higher PPM in:
1. Pineapple.
2.
Tea.
3.
Sea Fish.
4.
Coconut Water.
133. Fluoride is carried in the blood via:
1. Plasma.
2.
RBC's.
3.
Both Plasma & RBC.
4.
WBC's.
134. Enamel of primary and permanent teeth
differ in:
1. Enamel prism arrangement.
2.
Mineral content.
3.
Enamel is same in primary & permanent dentition, only dentin is different.
4.
None of the above.
135. Patients with Down's Syndrome normally
have:
1. IQ score above 80.
2.
Brachycephalic skull.
3.
Stiff muscles.
4.
All of the above.
136. Mulberry molars are characteristic
features of:
1. Severe fluorosis.
2.
Trauma at the time of birth.
3.
Congenital syphilis.
4.
Due to chronic suppurative abscess in overlying gingival tissue.
Ans: 3
137. What is the latest name of multiple
caties in children involving most of the teeth?
1. Rampant Caries.
2.
Maternally Derived Strepotoccus Matans disease.
3.
Early childhood syndrome.
4.
Early childood syndrome.
Ans: 2
138. Famous Vipcholm study was conducted
to:
1. To find out role of sticky and
non=sticky form of sugars on dental caries.
2.
To find out the role of water fluoridation of denten caries.
3.
To find out role of Xylitol on dental caries.
4.
all of the above.
Ans:
1
139. Aspartame is a:
1.
Non- caloric sweetener.
2.
Caloric sweetener.
3.
Sugar complex.
4.
None of the above.
Ans: 1
140. Dry socket following extraction of a
tooth is caused due to:
1. Staph aureus infection.
2.
Distintegration of blood clot.
3.
Prolonged antibiotic cover.
4.
Unsutured socket.
Ans:
2
141. In Winter's WAR line, Amber line
represents the:
1. Relative depth of the III molar.
2.
Point of application of the elevator.
3.
Bone level covering the impacted tooth.
4.
Axial inclination of the impacted tooth relative to II molar.
Ans:
3
142. Multiple odontogemic keratocyst are
associated with:
1. Gardner's syndrome.
2.
Gortin-Goitz syndrome.
3.
Goldenhar's syndrome.
4.
Grinspan syndrome.
Ans:
2
143. The fascial spaces involved in
Ludwig's Angina are:
1. Unilateral-submandiblar & sub
lingual spaces.
2.
Bilateral-submadibular, sublingual spaces.
3.
Unilateral-submandibular, sublingual & submental spaces.
4.
Bilateral-submadibular, sublingual & submental spaces.
Ans: 4
144. Unilateral TMJ ankylosis is associated
with the following features, except:
1. Multiple carious teeth.
2.
Facial symmetry with fullness on the normal side of mandible.
3.
Chin deviated towards the affected side.
4.
Prominent ante gonial notch on the affected side.
Ans:
2
145. In dislocated condylar fractures, the
condyle is dislocated.
1. Medially due to the attachment of medial
pterygoid.
2.
Laterally due to the attachment of lateral pterygoid.
3.
Laterally due to the attachment medial pterygoid.
4.
Medially due to the attachment of lateral pterygoid.
Ans:
4
146. Batle's sign is:
1. Sub-conjunctival ecchymosis.
2.
Sub-lingual ecchymosis.
3.
Palatal ecchymosis.
4.
Ecchymosis is the mastoid region.
Ans: 4
147. The safe dose of adrenaline in a
patient with compromised cardiac condition is:
1. 0.2 mg.
2.
0.02 mg.
3.
0.4 mg.
4.
0.04 mg.
Ans:
4
148; Rumpel=Lede test measures the:
1.Bleeding time.
2;
Platelet count.
3.
Capillary fragility.
4.
ESR.
Ans:
3
149. Etiology of mucocele is related to:
1.Mechanical trauma to the minor salivry
gland excretory duct.
2.
Salivary calculi in the excretory duct major salivary gland.
3.
Acute infections.
4.
Smoking tobacco.
Ans: 1
150. Which of the following is the first
drug of choice inaphylactic reacrion:
1. Epinephrine 1:1000.
2.
Dexamethasone 8 mg.
3.
Hydrocortisone 100 mg.
4.
Epinephrine 1:1,00,000.
151. The role of sodium metabsulfite in
Local anaesthetic agent is:
1. Preservative.
2.Fungicide.
3.
Reducing agent.
4.
Vaso constrictior.
Ans: 2
152. Which of the following features is not
associated with acuted osteomyelitis of mandible:
1. Severe pain.
2.
Purulent excudate.
3.
Parasthesis of lower lip.
4.
Radiographic evidence of bone destruction.
153. Ostectomy procedure is indicated in:
1. Physiologial architecture of alveolar
bone.
2.
Correction of Tori.
3.
Reverse architecture bony defects.
4.
Correction of bone ledges.
Ans: 2
154: Which of the following antibiotic
prescribed in case of juvenile periodontitis?
1. Tetracycline.
2.
Erythromycine.
3.
Sulfadiazine.
4.
Cephalexin.
Ans: 1
155. Which of the following is true is case
of AIDs patient?
1. Acute pain
2.
Diffuse red lesion of the attached gingival.
3.
Gingiva covered with pseudomembrane.
4.
Gingival itching.
156. What is the difference between
gingivitis and periodontitis?
1. Gingival sulcus.
2.
Periodontal pocket.
3.
Loss of epithelial attachment.
4.
Mobility of tooth.
Ans: 3
157. Which of the following step should be
most preferable taken in root planning procedure?
1. Removal of root caries.
2.
Removal of necrosed cementum and calculus.
3.
Removal of calculus.
4.
Removal of dentine.
Ans: 2
158. If periodontal surgery is necessary in
case o horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region. Which of the following
procedure is the most appropriate?
1. Papillla preservation flap.
2.
Widman flap.
3.
Cornoary displaced flap.
4. Gingivectomy.
Ans:
1
159. A young adult shows non-fluctuant,
tender and redness swelling in
the marginal ginginal lesion. This is most
likely:
1. Periodontal abscess.
2.
Periapical abscess.
3.
Gingival abscess.
4.
Periapical sinus.
Ans:
3
160. Which of the following periodontal
diseases does not have calculus:
1. ANUG.
2.
Chronic adult periodontitis.
3.
Juvenile periodontitis.
4.
Periodontal abscess.
Ans:
3
161. Which of the following conditions
gingivectomy is contraindicated:
1. Gingival sulcus beyond mucogingival
junction.
2.
Enlargement of the gingival.
3.
Papillary enlargement.
4.
Enlargement due to acute systems disease.
Ans:
1
162. What is the normal average distance
between the crest of the alveolar bone and he cementoenamel junnction in young
adult?
1. 1.0 mm.
2.
1.08mm.
3.
2.08mm.
4.
2.80mm.
Ans:
163. In which percentage chlorhexidine is
used as a mouthwash:
1. 2 percent.
2. 0.02 percent.
3. 0.2 percent.
4. 1.0 percent.
164. Which of the following dental material
shows most tear resistance?
1. Polysulfide.
2.
Condensation silicone.
3.
Addition silicone.
4.
Polyether.
Ans:
4
165. Which probe is used to detect the
furcation involvement:
1. Periodontal probe.
2.
Nabers Probe.
3.
Florida Probe.
4.
Probe No. 11.
Ans: 2
166. The percentage of Maxillary growth
remaining after 10 years of age is:
1. 45%.
2.
10%.
3.
25%.
4.
35%.
167. The functional Matrix as revisited by
Moss does not include:
1. Connected cellular network (CCN).
2.
Mechanotransduction.
3.
Epigenetic-Epithesis.
4.
Septopremaxillary ligament development.
168. Bjork used the implants for predicting
facial growth changes. This approach is called as:
1. Longitudinal approach.
2.
Metric approach.
3.
Structural approach.
4.
Computerized pedication.
169. The 7th Key to Normal occlusion is:
1. Molar relation.
2.
Occlusal plane.
3.
Crown angulations and inclination.
4.
Bolton ratio.
Ans:
4
170. The copper NiTi wires are not
availiable in the temperature range of:
1. 15
2.
29
3.
35
4.
40
171. Which of the following has he highest
modulus of Elasticity?
1. Dentin.
2.
Enamel.
3.
Amalgum.
4.
composite resin.
Ans: 2
172. The two blocks in the Twin Block
functional appliance are angulated at:
1. 75
2.
70
3.
65
4.
80
173. Class III skeletal growth pattern is
characterized by all except:
1. Acute cranial base angle.
2.
Anteriorly positioned articular
3.
Middle cranial fossa align posteriorly & superiorly.
4.
Males having more proclined maxillary incisors than females.
174. In a bonded palatal expansion (Hyrax)
appliance the wire framework is made of:
1. 0.040 inch stainless steel
2.
0.040 inch Elgiloy
3.
0.032 inch stainless steel
4.
0.036 inch stainless steel
175. All these appliances are fixed
funcional appliances except:
1. Churio Jumper
2.
Mandibular Protraction appliance (MPA)
3.
Pendulum appliance
4.
Herbst
176. All of the following weights of
different components of the PAR index are correct except:
1. Overjet (Score X 6)
2.
Overbite (Score X 2)
3.
Midline (Score X 4)
4.
Buccal segment (Score X 2)
177. Which of the following index in
primarily used to measure the success of orthodontics treatment:
1. IOTN
2.
ICON
3.
PAR index
4.
Goslon index
178. Which of the following condition is an
absolute contraindication for orthodontic treatment:
1. Patient having history of Subacute
bacterial endocarditis.
2.
Patient receiving insulin for juvenile diabetes mellitus.
3.
Recently diagnosed case of acute leukemia
4.
An treated case of juvenile periodontitis.
Ans: 3
179. Negative growth is a characteristic
of:
1. Testis
2.
Brain
3.
Mandible
4.
Thymus
Ans: 4
180. Which of the following cephalometric
parameter is used to diagnose
a long face syndrome patient:
1. Angle ANB
2.
Angle SNA
3.
Jaraback ratio
4.
Saddle angle
181. Normal facial index is:
1. 65-75%
2.
75-80%
3.
80-90%
4.
100%
182. Which of the following is rapid
palatal expansion device:
1. Quad helix
2.
Coffin's spring
3.
W-arch
4.
Jackson screw
183. Which of the following contermporary
orthodontic arch wire has maximum surface friction:
1. Stainless wire
2.
AJW wire
3.
TMA wire
4.
NiTi wire
184. The movement of bone in response to
its own growth is termed as:
1. Rotation
2.
Secondary displacement
3.
Primary displacement
4.
Differentiation
Ans: 3
185. The body tissue that grows rapidly but
shows minimal growth after the age of 6-7 years is:
1. Neural tissue.
2.
Lymphoid tissue
3.
Skeletal tissue
4.
Genital tissue
Ans: 2
186. The implant method of studying growth
was proposed by:
1. Scammon
2.
Borg
3.
Belchier
4.
Bjork
Ans:
4
187. Maxilla is "primarily"
formed by:
1. Intramembranous bone formation
2.
From cartilage
3.
Endochondral bone formation
4.
Equally by intramembranous & endochondral bone formation
Ans:
1
188. Which of the following areas of the
oral cavity are affected by inflammatory papillary hyperplasia affaects?
1. Lips
2.
Tongue
3.
Palate
4.
Gingival
Ans:
3
189. The main causative organism in Ludwig
Angina is:
1. Streptococcus viridans
2.
Staphylococcus albus
3.
Staphylococcus aureus
4.
Streptococcus haemolyticus
190. Which of the following terms refers to
a type of fusion in which the formed teeth are joined only along the line of
cementum:
1. Gemination
2.
Fusion
3.
Concrescence
4.
Dilaceration
Ans:
3
191. Which is a degeneratin disorder
characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g.fat, muscle,
cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:
1. Scleroderma
2.
Parry Romberg syndrome
3.
Miescher's syndrome
4.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Ans: 2
192. Virus responsible for infectious
mononucleosis is:
1. RNA Paramyxo virus
2.
Varicella zoster virus
3.
Epstein Barr virus
4.
Coxsackie virus A 16
Ans:
3
193. Microbrasion involves the use of:
1. Sulphuric acid
2. Acetic
acid
3.
Phosphoric acid
4.
Hydrochloric acid
Ans:
3
194. Name the lesions which is not a
radiolucent lesion of the jaws:
1. Ameloblastoma
2.
Cherubism
3.
Focal periapical osteopetrosis
4.
Odontogenic cyst
Ans:
3
195. Name the lesion where cotton wool,
multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually:
1. Gardner's syndrome
2.
Cemento-osseous dysplasia
3.
Paget's disease
4.
Fibrous dysplasia
Ans:
1
196. The syndrome of geographic tongue
should be treated by:
1. Excision of the lesion
2.
Penicillin therapy
3.
Topical application of Nystatin
4.
Routine observation at recall time
Ans:
4
197. Radiographically latent period of an
acute periapical abscess is:
1. 7-10 days
2.
10-15 days
3.
2-5 days
4.
3-7 days
198. What is not characteristic of Eagle's
syndrome?
1. Excessive lacrimation
2.
Pain during mandibular movement
3.
Stabbing type pain originate in the tonsillar regions
4.
When the jaws are closed the pain subsided
Ans:
1
199. What is not included in the contents
of the sublingual space?
1. Sublingual gland
2.
Facial artery
3.
Hypoglossal nerve
4.
Lingual nerve
Ans: 2
200. The clinical picture of hairs in black
hairy tongue is caused by hyperkeratinized hyperplastic:
1. Filiform papillae
2.
Fungiform papillae
3.
Vallate papillae
4.
Filiform and fungiform papillae.
Ans: 1
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